Posted on 22 October 2012 by Graeme
I have just been divorced and the agreement was I pay off the mortgage in full so my ex-wife gets the house mortgage free. The property was leasehold when we purchased it so we bought the freehold a few years ago in joint names. Do I have any claim on that or does it just transfer to her on settlement of the mortgage?
You would need to check with your solicitor as to whether the freehold was kept separate when the purchase of it went through. If it is still separate then your solicitor can advise you whether it has any value and if you have any claim to it.
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