Posted on 23 November 2012 by Carol
I'm the sole owner of my property. I am married but have been seperated for over 2 years. My husbands parents gave him £60,000 as a deposit and he did pay towards the mortgage initially, however I live in the house with my 14 year old daughter. Can I sell it without his permission or do I have to have his permission. He has no job and is on benefits when he is not in prison.
If he's not on the mortgage, nor on the title deeds, then to best of my knowledge you won't require his actual signature, however as you are still officially married, and he has contributed to the mortgage and household in the past, he may be entitled to some of the equity.
I would reccomend that you speak to your solicitor to check exactly what you can / cant do, and what if any claim your husband may be entitled to. If you don't have a solicitor, then let me know and I can arrange to put you in touch with one.
More than mortgages, talk to me about:
Financial Protection | Investments | Personal and Corporate Pensions | Home Insurance
General Insurance | Valuations | Conveyancing | Wills | Home finders
Answers provided in response to Ask the experts are based on the information provided and do not constitute advice under the Financial Services & Markets Act. They reflect the personal views of the authors and do not necessarily represent the views, positions, strategies or opinions of John Charcol. All comments are made in good faith, and John Charcol will not accept liability for them.
We recommend you seek professional advice with regard to any of these topics where appropriate.